Title: Jamjar MCQ's / 2023

Q: Calculate the O2 content in a patient with Hb 100g/L, breathing FiO2 0.21, saturating 100%, paO2 100mmHg with Hufner’s constant 1.34.
A: 13.7 ml/dL
B: 16.4 ml/dL
C: 18.7 ml/dL
D: 24.7 ml/dL
[...]
A: A: 13.7 ml/dL

Q: What is the most lateral structure at the level of the larynx?
A: Sternocleidomastoid muscle
B: Posterior triangle of neck
C: Common carotid artery
D: Hyoid bone
[...]
A: A: Sternocleidomastoid muscle

Q: Which organ is the most important in immediate (minutely) control of plasma potassium following a meal?
A: Skeletal muscle
B: Liver
C: Lung
D: Skin
[...]
A: A: Skeletal muscle

Q: Which organ is not involved in calcium homeostasis?
A: Liver
B: Kidney
C: Lung
D: Small intestine
[...]
A: A: Liver

Q: Which has the greatest impedance to ultrasound waves?
A: Air
B: Bone
C: Muscle
D: Tissue
[...]
A: B: Bone

Q: What is the half life of alteplase?
A: 2-3 mins
B: 5 mins
C: 30 mins
D: 1-2 hr
[...]
A: B: 5 mins

Q: Which is the most sensitive to detect a partial phase I block from depolarizing muscle blocking agent?
A: No post tetanic facilitation
B: Incomplete tetany from 5 seconds stimulation at 50-100Hz
C: TOF <0.7
D: Single twitch at 1Hz
[...]
A: A: No post tetanic facilitation

Q: In which setting would you expect to find EEG waves <4 Hz?
A: REM sleep
B: NREM sleep stage 3
C: Awake resting
D: Short term memory recall
[...]
A: B: NREM sleep stage 3

Q: Where do thiazide diuretics work?
A: Distal convoluted tubule
B: Proximal convoluted tubule
C: Ascending limb of loop of Henle
D: Descending limb of loop of Henle
[...]
A: A: Distal convoluted tubule

Q: What describes the range of ambient temperatures at which metabolic processes to maintain heat are minimal?
A: Thermoneutral zone
B: Interthreshold range
C: Thermo-comfort zone
D: Thermophile
[...]
A: A: Thermoneutral zone

Q: Mechanism of action of verapamil
A: Blocks activated calcium channels
B: Blocks activated and inactivated calcium channels
C: Blocks activated sodium channels
D: Blocks activated and inactivated sodium channels
[...]
A: A: Blocks activated calcium channels

Q: Compared to hydrocortisone, which describes the potency of dexamethasone’s mineralocorticoid activity
A: 0
B: 0.5
C: 4
D: 30
[...]
A: A: 0

Q: Rhesus has the following antigens on RBC
A: B
B: C
C: D
D: R
[...]
A: C: D

Q: What increases the probability of turbulent flow?
A: Decreased density
B: Increased viscosity
C: Decreased viscosity
D: Increased diameter
[...]
A: D: Increased diameter

Q: Effectiveness of vancomycin determined by
A: Time above MIC
B: Concentration divided by MIC
C: AUC divided by MIC
D: Time below MIC
[...]
A: C: AUC divided by MIC

Q: Static compliance uses pressure difference between alveolus and
A: Pleural space
B: Atmospheric pressure
C: Mouth pressure
D: Airway pressure
[...]
A: A: Pleural space

Q: Prolonged duration of action of midazolam for elderly is due to:
A: Reduced liver function
B: Reduced renal clearance
C: Reduced cardiac output
D: Increased total body fat
[...]
A: B: Reduced renal clearance

Q: Which describes the mechanism of action of oseltamivir?
A: Prevent release of virus particle
B: Prevent viral replication
C: Prevent viral entry into host cells
D: Prevent adhesion of virus onto cell membrane
[...]
A: A: Prevent release of virus particle

Q: What is the INR of a unit of fresh frozen plasma?
A: 0.5
B: 0.8
C: 1.0
D: 1.5
[...]
A: C: 1.0

Q: Which has the least glucocorticoid activity?
A: Aldosterone
B: Cortisol
C: Prednisolone
D: Dexamethasone
[...]
A: A: Aldosterone

Q: What are the ECG changes in hyperkalaemia?
A: Shortened PR
B: Peaked P waves
C: Peaked T waves
D: Narrow QRS complex
[...]
A: C: Peaked T waves

Q: What is the half life of dexamethasone?
A: 36-54 hours
B: 24 hours
C: 12 hours
D: 4-8 hours
[...]
A: A: 36-54 hours

Q: At what age do neonates develop ABO antigens?
A: 2-3 days
B: 2-3 weeks
C: 2-3 months
D: 2-3 years
[...]
A: C: 2-3 months

Q: Which of the following is the least likely physiological change in pregnancy
A: Increase in intravascular volume
B: Increase in cardiac output
C: Increase in stroke volume
D: Increase in peripheral vascular resistance
[...]
A: D: Increase in peripheral vascular resistance

Q: With regards to the large veins of the neck, which of the following is true?
A: The subclavian vein is a continuation of the axillary vein, beginning at the lateral border of the first rib and ending just medial to the sternocleidomastoid
B: The external jugular vein, which lies in the posterior triangle of the neck, drains directly into the subclavian vein
C: The right brachiocephalic vein is almost double the length of its left-sided counterpart
D: Cannulation of the subclavian vein is best achieved by inserting the needle below the midpoint of the clavicle and aiming towards the manubriosternal joint
[...]
A: B: The external jugular vein, which lies in the posterior triangle of the neck, drains directly into the subclavian vein

Q: What proportion of endogenous insulin is excreted by the kidneys?
A: 10%
B: 25%
C: 50%
D: 100%
[...]
A: B: 25%

Q: Which of the following is an anaerobic bacteria?
A: Acinetobacter baumannii
B: Bacillus anthracis
C: Fusobacterium nucleatum
D:  Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
[...]
A: C: Fusobacterium nucleatum

Q: Which type of insulin is most commonly given IV?
A: Detemir
B: Isophane
C: Glargine
D: Regular
[...]
A: D: Regular

Q: What does line BC in the below image represent?
A: Isovolumetric Contraction
B: Isovolumetric Relaxation
C: Passive Ventricular Filling
D: Ventricular Ejection
[...]
A: C: Passive Ventricular Filling

Q: An isobologram shows:
A: The doses at which 2 drugs have the same effect
B: The interaction between 2 drugs
C: The clearance of a drug over time
D: The likelihood of a drug to produce tachyphylaxis
[...]
A: B: The interaction between 2 drugs

Q: The earliest that Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) should be measured after a meal is:
A: 30 minutes
B: 4 hours
C: 6 hours
D: 12 hours
[...]
A: D: 12 hours

Q: How much saliva is secreted each day?
A: 250mL
B: 500mL
C: 1000mL
D: 2000mL
[...]
A: C: 1000mL

Q: Which of the following is an example of Phase 2 Metabolism?
A: Hydroxylation
B: Methylation
C: Oxidation
D: Reduction
[...]
A: B: Methylation

Q: In comparison to the base of the lung, the apex:
A: Has a lower V/Q ratio
B: Has a higher PO2
C: Is more compliant
D: Has more blood flow
[...]
A: B: Has a higher PO2

Q: Each domain of the cardiac fast sodium channel is composed of how many membrane-spanning segments?
A: Two
B: Four
C: Five
D: Six
[...]
A: D: Six

Q: Which of the following antifungals has the broadest spectrum of activity?
A: Fluconazole
B: Itraconazole
C: Ketoconazole
D: Posaconazole
[...]
A: D: Posaconazole

Q: Which of the following is a physiologic antagonist of histamine?
A: Adrenaline
B: Cetrizine
C: Physostigmine
D: Ranitidine
[...]
A: A: Adrenaline

Q: How much will 2,3-DPG decrease after storing blood for 14 days?
A: 10%
B: 30%
C: 40%
D: 80%
[...]
A: D: 80%

Q: Which of the following drugs increases Digoxin levels?
A: Carbamazepine
B: Phenytoin
C: Metoclopramide
D: Captopril
[...]
A: D: Captopril

Q: What is the intra-pleural pressure at the beginning of inspiration during normal quiet breathing?
A: -5cmH2O
B: 0cmH2O
C: 5cmH2O
D: 10cmH2O
[...]
A: A: -5cmH2O

Q: What is the intracellular concentration of calcium?
A: 0.0001 to 0.0009 mmol/L
B: 0.001 to 0.009 mmol/L
C: 0.01 to 0.09 mmol/L
D: 0.1 to 0.9 mmol/L
[...]
A: A: 0.0001 to 0.0009 mmol/L

Q: Proteus mirabilis is a:
A: Gram-positive coccus
B: Gram-positive rod
C: Gram-negative coccus
D: Gram-negative rod
[...]
A: D: Gram-negative rod

Q: Which pattern of breathing increases the elastic work of breathing the most?
A: Rapid and Deep
B: Rapid and Shallow
C: Slow and Deep
D: Slow and Shallow
[...]
A: A: Rapid and Deep

Q: Which area of the GIT absorbs the most amount of water?
A: Oesophagus
B: Stomach
C: Small Intestine
D: Large Intestine
[...]
A: C: Small Intestine

Q: What is the half-life of lignocaine?
A: 30 minutes
B: 1 hour
C: 2 hours
D: 4 hours
[...]
A: C: 2 hours

Q: The decrease in pressure along a tube in relation to laminar flow is proportional to the:
A: Radius of the tube to the power of 4
B: Inverse of the diameter of the tube to the power of 4
C: Inverse of the radius of the tube to the power of 4
D: Diameter of the tube to the power of 2
[...]
A: C: Inverse of the radius of the tube to the power of 4

Q: The action of which of the following leads to vasoconstriction:
A: Bradykinin
B: Endothelin-converting enzyme
C: Nitric Oxide Synthase
D: Plasma Kallikrein
[...]
A: B: Endothelin-converting enzyme

Q: Which class of antibiotics acts via cell membrane inhibition?
A: Aminoglycosides
B: Carbapenems
C: Quinonlones
D: Tetracyclines
[...]
A: B: Carbapenems

Q: Which of the following factors involved in coagulation has the shortest half-life?
A: Factor II
B: Factor IX
C: Factor X
D: Protein C
[...]
A: D: Protein C

Q: Normal B cells express which surface marker?
A: CD3
B: CD4
C: CD8
D: CD20
[...]
A: D: CD20

Q: Choose the correct sequence of G protein coupled receptor activation
A: activated GPCR binds trimeric G-protein → interaction of G protein with receptor forms Gβγ → Gβγ binds and activates phospholipase C beta (PLCβ) → PLCβ catalyzes the hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP2) to diacylglycerol (DAG) and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP3) → IP3 opens calcium channels in the endoplasmic reticulum → cytosolic calcium ion levels increase → increased cytosolic calcium and DAG activate PKC
B: activated GPCR binds trimeric G-protein → interaction of G protein with receptor forms Gα-GTP → Gα-GTP binds and activates PLCβ → PLCβ catalyzes the hydrolysis of PIP2 to DAG and IP3 → DAG opens calcium channels in the endoplasmic reticulum → cytosolic calcium ion levels increase  → increased cytosolic calcium and IP3 activate PKC
C: activated GPCR binds trimeric G-protein → interaction of G protein with receptor forms Gα-GTP → Gα-GTP binds and activates PLCβ → PLCβ catalyzes the hydrolysis of PIP2 to DAG and IP3 → IP3 closes calcium channels in the endoplasmic reticulum → cytosolic calcium ion levels decrease → decreased cytosolic calcium and DAG activate PKC
D: activated GPCR binds trimeric G-protein → interaction of G protein with receptor forms Gα-GTP → Gα-GTP binds and activates PLCβ → PLCβ catalyzes the hydrolysis of PIP2 to DAG and IP3 → IP3 opens calcium channels in the endoplasmic reticulum → cytosolic calcium ion levels increase → increased cytosolic calcium and DAG activate PKC
[...]
A: D: activated GPCR binds trimeric G-protein → interaction of G protein with receptor forms Gα-GTP → Gα-GTP binds and activates PLCβ → PLCβ catalyzes the hydrolysis of PIP2 to DAG and IP3 → IP3 opens calcium channels in the endoplasmic reticulum → cytosolic calcium ion levels increase → increased cytosolic calcium and DAG activate PKC

Q: Compared to hydrocortisone, what is the ratio of anti inflammatory action of fludrocortisone
A: 0
B: 0.3
C: 10
D: 35
[...]
A: C: 10

Q: Which drug has the most affinity for MOP opioid receptors
A: Fentanyl
B: Morphine
C: Buprenorphine
D: Alfentanil
[...]
A: A: Fentanyl

Q: Octreotide is similar to
A: Gastrin
B: Ghrelin
C: Secretin
D: Somatostatin
[...]
A: D: Somatostatin

Q: The parietal cells in the stomach secrete
A: Intrinsic factor
B: Gastrin
C: Pepsinogen
D: Histamine
[...]
A: A: Intrinsic factor

Q: Calculate the oxygen content of Hb 100 spO2 100 Huffner constant 1.34 and pO2 100, 1kPa is equal to _ mmHg?
A: 13.7
B: 0.75
C: 7.5
D: 750
[...]
A: C: 7.5

Q: Which interface has the least reflection as it relates to ultrasound?
A: Air:Water
B: Bone:Muscle
C: Air:Bone
D: Muscle:Fat
[...]
A: D: Muscle:Fat

Q: Which equation best describes the SVR equation?
A: MAP – CVP/CO
B: CO/MAP - CVP
C: CO/ CVP - MAP
D: CVP – MAP/CO
[...]
A: A: MAP – CVP/CO

Q: Which is most dependent on Hoffman elimination?
A: Cisatracurium
B: Suxamethonium
C: Rocuronium
D: Vecuronium
[...]
A: A: Cisatracurium

Q: Which has the most risk of anaphylaxis?
A: Suxamethonium
B: Rocuronium
C: Pancuronium
D: Cisatracurium
[...]
A: A: Suxamethonium

Q: In lead III of the ECG, where are the positive and negative electrodes?
A: Left arm and right leg
B: Left arm and left leg
C: Right arm and right leg
D: Right arm and left leg
[...]
A: B: Left arm and left leg

Q: Which constant relates to hepatic enzyme
A: Michaelis constant
B: Time constant
C: Equilibrium constant
D: Excretion rate constant
[...]
A: A: Michaelis constant

Q: Vibrio is a
A: Gram positive cocci
B: Gram positive rod
C: Gram negative cocci
D: Gram negative rod
[...]
A: D: Gram negative rod

Q: Which is most reduced in obesity?
A: Residual volume
B: Tidal volume
C: Closing capacity
D: Functional residual capacity
[...]
A: D: Functional residual capacity

Q: What is the SpO2 in fetal IVC?
A: 74%
B: 80%
C: 88%
D: 67%
[...]
A: A: 74%

Q: Compared to the resting state, which is true of the cardiac cycle during exercise?
A: Even though heart rate increase, systole and diastole remain the same
B: Systole remains the same but diastole decreases
C: Systole increases and diastole remains the same
D: Both systole and diastole decrease, but there is a greater decrease in diastole
[...]
A: D: Both systole and diastole decrease, but there is a greater decrease in diastole

Q: If patient has marked reduction FVC and FEV1/FVC > 0.8, their defect is
A: Mixed obstructive and restrictive
B: Obstructive
C: Restrictive
D: Fixed obstruction
[...]
A: C: Restrictive

Q: The factor with the shortest half life
A: Factor II
B: Factor IX
C: Factor VII
D: Protein C
[...]
A: C: Factor VII

Q: Compared to FFP, Cryodeplete plasma has less
A: vWF
B: Thrombin
C: Factor VII
D: Antithrombin III
[...]
A: A: vWF

Q: Alteplase and tenecteplase differ in
A: Affinity for fibrin
B: Prolonged clearance
C: Safety profile
D: Bioavailability
[...]
A: A: Affinity for fibrin

Q: Tissue binding of drugs depends on
A: Solubility
B: Protein binding
C: Blood flow
D: Administration method
[...]
A: B: Protein binding

Q: After a single bolus of Thiopentone the highest concentration after 1 hr can be found in:
A: Blood
B: Muscle
C: Fat
D: Viscera
[...]
A: B: Muscle

Q: Which of the following is not an inspiratory muscle:
A: Scalene
B: Sternocleidomastoid
C: Pectoralis Major
D: Anterior Serrati
[...]
A: D: Anterior Serrati

Q: Which insulin can be administered intravenously
A: Glargine
B: Isophane
C: Neutral Protamine Hagedorn
D: Human Regular Insulin
[...]
A: D: Human Regular Insulin

Q: What is the half life of oxytocin
A: 1-6 minutes
B: 15 minutes
C: 40 minutes
D: 30-120 minutes
[...]
A: A: 1-6 minutes

Q: What is the half life of Angiotensin II
A: 2 seconds
B: 30 seconds
C: 1-2 minutes
D: 10 minutes
[...]
A: B: 30 seconds

Q: Where is most fat absorbed?
A: Stomach
B: Jejunum
C: Duodenum
D:  Ileum
[...]
A: B: Jejunum

Q: Which of the following has the lowest Context Sensitive Half Time?
A: Midazolam
B: Dexmedetomidine
C: Propofol
D: Fentanyl
[...]
A: C: Propofol

Q: For the Shunt Equation Qs/Qt = Cc’O2 - CaO2/Cc’O2 - CvO2, the oxygen content of Cc’O2 refers to?
A: Alveolar
B: End Capillary
C: Mixed Venous
D: Arterial
[...]
A: B: End Capillary

Q: Pulmonary Capillary Transit Time
A: 0.80 seconds
B: 0.14 seconds
C: 0.60 seconds
D: 0.25 seconds
[...]
A: A: 0.80 seconds

Q: In children the Functional Residual Capacity is indexed to
A: Lean Body Weight
B: Total Body Weight
C: Height
D: Corrected Age
[...]
A: B: Total Body Weight

Q: Rhesus has the following antigens on RBCs
A: A
B: B
C: R
D: D
[...]
A: D: D

Q: Which of the following reduces Digoxin toxicity?
A: Increased intracellular Ca
B: Increased intracellular K
C: Increased intracellular Mg
D: Increased intracellular Na
[...]
A: C: Increased intracellular Mg

Q: Which vein runs medial to the biceps muscle?
A: Median cubital vein
B: Cephalic vein
C: Ulnar vein
D: Basilic vein
[...]
A: D: Basilic vein

Q: What percentage of reduction of BMR occurs in the absence of thyroid hormones?
A: 5-10%
B: 10-20%
C: 30-40%
D: 40-50%
[...]
A: D: 40-50%

Q: What happens to transpulmonary pressure during inspiration?
A: Increases
B: Decreases
C: No change
D: Becomes zero
[...]
A: A: Increases

Q: Which oral antihyperglycaemics are most likely to cause hypoglycaemia?
A: Biguanides
B: Sulfonylureas
C: DPP-4 inhibitors
D: SGLT-2 inhibitors
[...]
A: B: Sulfonylureas

Q: What is the INR of one unit of fresh frozen plasma?
A: 1.5
B: 1.0
C: 0.8
D: 0.4
[...]
A: B: 1.0

Q: Evans blue dye can be used to measure which body compartment?
A: Total Body Water
B: Blood Volume
C: Plasma Volume
D: Intracellular Volume
[...]
A: C: Plasma Volume

Q: What percentage of total body Albumin is in the Interstitial Fluid?
A: 30-40%
B: 50-60%
C: 60-70%
D: 70-80%
[...]
A: B: 50-60%

Q: Which NMBA is the most potent?
A: Vecuronium
B: Rocuronium
C: Atracurium
D: Pancuronium
[...]
A: A: Vecuronium

Q: Which pressure is largest? (Can’t remember exact response options)
A: 0.01 Standard atmospheres
B: 2 kPa
C: 15 cmH2O
D: 20 mmHg
[...]
A: D: 20 mmHg

Q: What is the greatest contributor to the resistive component of the work of breathing?
A: Airway resistance
B: Generation of heat
C: Elastic resistance
D: Compression of gases
[...]
A: A: Airway resistance

Q: What is absolute humidity normally measured in?
A: g/m^3^
B: Coulombs
C: % of maximum humidity
D: Omhs
[...]
A: A: g/m^3^

Q: Which of the following has the longest duration of action?
A: Phentolamine
B: Phenoxybenzamine
C: Prazosin
D: Phenytoin
[...]
A: B: Phenoxybenzamine

Q: Which of the following has the highest risk of extra-pyramidal side effects?
A: Haloperidol
B: Risperidone
C: Quetiapine
D: Olanzapine
[...]
A: A: Haloperidol

Q: What is the normal value for pulmonary capillary transit time in healthy lungs?
A: 0.8 seconds
B: 0.08 seconds
C: 5 seconds
D: 8 seconds
[...]
A: A: 0.8 seconds

Q: Which of the following has the highest affinity for the COX-2 enzyme?
A: Aspirin
B: Diclofenac
C: Ibuprofen
D: Naproxen
[...]
A: B: Diclofenac

Q: Which of the following has a rate of urinary excretion (units of solute per unit time) that is closest to its rate of glomerular filtration in a healthy adult?
A: Sodium
B: Glucose
C: Chloride
D: Creatinine
[...]
A: D: Creatinine
Extra: Question partially recalled

Q: Which of the following is true regarding the autonomic nervous system?
A: Acetylcholine is formed via the action of the enzyme choline hydroxylase
B: Postganglionic parasympathetic neurons release acetylcholine that acts on post-synaptic nicotinic receptors
C: The vagus nerve arises from nuclei in the midbrain
D: The adrenal gland is innervated by pre-ganglionic sympathetic neurons
[...]
A: D: The adrenal gland is innervated by pre-ganglionic sympathetic neurons
Extra: Question partially recalled

Q: The muscle most sensitive to neuromuscular paralysis
A: Diaphragm
B: Thyroarytenoid Muscle
C: Adductor Pollicis Longus
D: Obicularis Muscle
[...]
A: C: Adductor Pollicis Longus
Extra: Question partially recalled