Title: Jamjar MCQ's / 2021

Q: Which drug increases uterine tone
1. Ergometrine
2. Magnesium
3. Salbutamol
4. GTN
[...]
A: Ergometrine

Q: How does hyperkalemia affect the action potential
1. Increases the resting membrane potential
2. Increase in slope of phase 2
3. Increase in threshold potential
4. Increased velocity of phase 0
[...]
A: Increase in slope of phase 2
Extra: - Decreased RMP
- Velocity (Vmax) of Ph 0 decreases as RMP becomes less negative
- Threshold potential decreases (from -75mV to -70mV)
- Increase in slope of Ph 2 & 3 shortening repolarisation time (responsible for ST-T depression, peaked Tw & QT shortening)

Q: The position with the greatest reduction in FRC:
1. Supine
2. Trendelenburg
3. Erect
4. Prone
[...]
A: Trendelenburg

Q: The correct order of the ECG and CVP trace on Wigger’s diagram:
1. C wave R wave T wave V wave
2. R wave C wave V wave T wave
3. C wave R wave T wave V wave
4. R wave C wave T wave V wave
[...]
A: R wave C wave T wave V wave

Q: Capacitance is measured in
1. Volts
2. Watts
3. Farads
4. Joules
[...]
A: Farads
Extra: This qn was recalled as something in regards to a defibrillator capacitance refers to… Capacitance is the ability to store charge (SI = Farad)

Q: he correct surface anatomy of the radial artery in the distal forearm
1. Medial to the Median nerve
2. Lateral to the flexor carpi radialis
3. Medial to the Ulnar nerve
4. Lateral to the brachioradialis
[...]
A: Lateral to the flexor carpi radialis

Q: The most lateral structure:
1. Femoral Artery
2. Femoral Vein
3. Femoral Nerve
4. Femoral Canal
[...]
A: Femoral Nerve
Extra: Too easy. They could potentially confuse by asking you the most lateral structure in the femoral sheath (as opposed to the triangle which does not contain the nerve)

Q: The events occurring in Phase II of the Valsalva Manoeuvre:
1. ↓BP, ↑HR, ↑Intrathoracic Pressure
2. ↑BP, ↓HR, ↑Intrathoracic Pressure
3. ↓BP, ↑HR, ↓Intrathoracic Pressure
4. ↑BP, ↓HR, ↓Intrathoracic Pressure
[...]
A: ↓BP, ↑HR, ↑Intrathoracic Pressure

Q: Permanent closure of Ductus Arteriosus after birth occurs
1. 1-5 mins
2. 1-5 hours
3. 2-3 days
4. 2-3 weeks
[...]
A: 2-3 weeks
Extra: The ductus arteriosus is a fetal vessel that allows the oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the fetal lungs in utero. At birth, a newborn inhales for the first time and the lungs fill with air, causing pulmonary vascular resistance to drop and blood to flow from the right ventricle to the lungs where it can undergo oxygenation. The increased arterial oxygen tension and decrease in blood flow through the ductus arteriosus causes the ductus to constrict and functionally close by 12 to 24 hours of age in healthy, full-term newborns, with permanent (anatomic) closure occurring within 2 to 3 weeks. In premature infants, the ductus arteriosus does not close rapidly and may require pharmacologic or surgical closure to treat unwanted repercussions
- Patent Ductus Arteriosus
- Maria Gillam-Krakauer; Kunal Mahajan.

Q: The S wave of the ECG occurs:
1. After blood is ejected into aorta
2. After the fourth heart sound
3. During isovolumetric contraction
4. Preceeding the ‘a’ wave
[...]
A: During isovolumetric contraction

Q: Which is true of anatomy of the Radial Artery:
1. Splits into thenar and hypothenar arteries
2. Lateral to flexor carpi radialis
3. Medial to palmaris longus tendon
4. Deep to medial nerve under flexor retinaculum
[...]
A: Lateral to flexor carpi radialis

Q: Oxygen tension in the blood measured by:
1. Absorbance spectrophotometry
2. Paramagnetic analysis
3. Pulse contour analysis
4. Mass spectroscopy
[...]
A: Paramagnetic analysis

Q: Which phase of the cardiac cycle has the highest sodium flux:
1. Isovolumetric Contraction
2. Isovolumetric Relaxation
3. Ejection
4. Atrial Systole A)
[...]
A: Isovolumetric Contraction
Extra: From Derranged:
Isovolumetric ventricular contraction
- The beginning of this phase corresponds with the peak of the R wave
- This corresponds to Phase 0 (rapid sodium influx) of the ventricular myocyte action potential
- The ventricles begin to contract during this period
- This contraction increases the ventricular chamber pressure and closes the mitral and tricuspid valves.
- As a result, there is a fixed ventricular volume during this contraction

Q: The drug with the lowest clearance:
1. Vancomycin
2. Piperacillin-Tazobactam
3. Clindamycin
4. Ampicillin
[...]
A: Vancomycin

Q: The nerve root of the knee jerk reflex
1. L1/L2
2. L3/L4
3. L4/L5
4. S1/S2
[...]
A: L3/L4
Extra: Just be sure you are answering the correct qn as there are Dermatome, Myotome & Reflex MCQs

Q: The efferent limb of the pupillary light reflex synapses onto post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibres in the:
1. Olivary Pretectal Nucleus
2. Edinger Westphal nucleus
3. Ciliary Ganglion
4. Contralateral Pretectal Nucleus
[...]
A: Ciliary Ganglion
Extra: This qn was not well recalled but related to the pupillary light reflex – learn the pathways & their connections
- The PLR has traditionally been divided into two separate pathways based on the clinical manifestations of the defects in this reflex.
- The afferent pathway is composed of both the retinal cells that project to the pretectum as well as their recipient neurons, which project bilaterally to the EW nucleus (Figure 1).
- The efferent pathway is composed of the preganglionic pupilloconstriction fibers of the EW nucleus and their postganglionic recipient neurons in the ciliary ganglion, which project to the sphincter muscle of the iris (Figure 1).
When each pretectal nucleus projects bilaterally and synapses in both Edinger-Westphal nuclei (cranial nerve III), the activated Edinger-Westphal nuclei begin the efferent limb of the reflex by generating action potentials. The axons of these preganglionic parasympathetic neurons send the signals along the oculomotor nerve to the post-ganglionic nerve fibers of the ciliary ganglion

Q: The effect of a competitive antagonist on a dose response curve is:
1. Right shift
2. Change in slope
3. Change in peak
4. Left shift
[...]
A: Right shift

Q: Drugs with low extraction ratio are primarily affected by
1. Hepatic blood flow and intrinsic enzyme activity
2. Hepatic blood flow and plasma protein binding
3. Protein binding and intrinsic enzyme activity
4. Hepatic blood flow only
[...]
A: Protein binding and intrinsic enzyme activity
Extra: For drugs with low extraction ratio:
- only unbound drug penetrates membranes and is available for elimination. An increase of the unbound fraction will thus proportionally increase the clearance
- Variation of the organ’s intrinsic ability to eliminate the drug will also slightly affect organ clearance

Q: Which is true regarding the antifungal activity of anidulafungin:
1. Inhibits glucan synthase
2. Inhibits ergosterol synthesis
3. Narrow spectrum limited to yeast organisms
4. Is affected by renal impairment
[...]
A: Inhibits glucan synthase
Extra: - Anidulafungin has potent and broad antifungal activity against Candida and Aspergillus spp., including those resistant to fluconazole
- It does not undergo metabolism but is eliminated through spontaneous degradation with linear kinetics and a terminal half-life of 40 to 50 hours
- Neither end-stage renal impairment nor dialysis substantially alters the pharmacokinetics of anidulafungin.

Q: GFR can be directly measured through
1. Creatinine Clearance
2. Para-aminohippurate clearance
3. Lithium Clearance
4. Inulin Clearance
[...]
A: Inulin Clearance
Extra: - Crt & Cystatin both indirect measurements
- PAH is for RBF
- Lithium for proximal fluid reabsorption

Q: The majority of iron is stored in:
1. Haemoglobin
2. Ferritin
3. Myoglobin
4. Cytochromes
[...]
A: Haemoglobin
Extra: Ferritin 25% body stores

Q: A pH of 7.4 is equivalent to a H+ concentration of (nmol/L)
1. 50
2. 42
3. 38
4. 40
[...]
A: 40

Q: Which of the following contributes to oxygen transfer in the placenta
1. Haldane effect
2. PO2 50mmHg Umbilical Vein
3. L) shift in Maternal ODC when oxygen binds
4. PO2 gradient is 30mmHg
[...]
A: PO2 gradient is 30mmHg
Extra: - Double Haldane effect explains maternal release of O2 & uptake of CO2 with increase in foetal blood O2 uptake
- HbF undergoes L shift (becomes alkalotic) to give itself greater O2 affinity
- PO2 28mmHg Umb V
- PO2 maternal blood = 100mmHg
- PO2 intervillous space = 50mmHg
- PO2 Umb A = 20mmHg
- 30mmHg gradient favouring O2 diffusion

Q: Which of the following vasodilates smooth muscle without acting via the endothelium
1. Bradykinin
2. Adenosine
3. Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide
4. Histamine
[...]
A: Adenosine
Extra: - BK is a potent endothelium-dependant vasodilator
- VIP increases NO and is a positive endothelial cell proliferator
- VPAC2 receptors are also present in the aortic endothelium, heart, pancreas, renal medulla, adrenal cortex, skeletal muscle, and adipose tissue
- Histamine binds endothelial cells
- An intact endothelium is not necessary for an adenosine response in vitro
- Activation of A2A and A2B adenosine receptors producespotent vasodilation of most vascular beds including thecoronary circulation
- A2B receptorsare found on human mast cells and are thought to producemast cell degranulation and bronchial constriction(15).A3receptors are mainly peripherally located but are thought toplay a role in mediating pre-conditioning.The use of adenosine for stress testing and induction ofsystemic (and coronary) hyperemia is primarily related to theactivation of A2A receptors and the resultant increase inmyocardial bloodflow

Q: With regards to monitoring systems, the natural frequency is
1. Directly proportional to length
2. 100 times the fundamental frequency
3. The frequency at which the material oscilates
4. Inversely proportional to lumen radius
[...]
A: The frequency at which the material oscilates
Extra: - The fundamental frequency is just the lowest possible frequency among all the natural frequencies of vibration of an object.
- The “natural” frequency of a system, is that system’s response to an impulsive forcing function. So hitting (impulsive forcing function) a 256 Hz tuning fork (system) on a table will cause the tuning fork to oscillate at 256 Hz (its natural frequency).
- Directly proportional to lumen radius
- Inversely proportional to tube length, compliance, fluid density
→ the system should be SHORT, FAT & NON-COMPLIAN

Q: What is the mechanism of a Type III Hypersensitivity reaction?
1. Complex mediated
2. Cell mediated
3. Complement mediated
4. Mast cell mediated
[...]
A: Complex mediated

Q: In Sickle Cell Anaemia
1. The alpha chain of haemoglobin has a valine replacing glutamic acid
2. The beta chain of haemoglobin has a valine replacing glutamic acid
3. The ODC displays a L shift
4. Is due to a mutation at position 7 of the globin chain
[...]
A: The beta chain of haemoglobin has a valine replacing glutamic acid

Q: The respiratory control centre which is inactive during normal respiration and becomes more active during forceful or high tidal volume respiration
1. Dorsal Respiratory Group
2. Ventral Respiratory Group
3. Pneumotaxic Centre
4. Apneustic Centre
[...]
A: Ventral Respiratory Group

Q: Which of the following is true regarding the carotid baroreceptors:
1. Their discharge rate increases with increasing blood pressure
2. They have a firing threshold of 80mmHg
3. They are innervated by a branch of the vagus nerve
4. They have a minimum firing rate at a blood pressure of 200mmHg
[...]
A: Their discharge rate increases with increasing blood pressure
Extra: These receptors respond to stretching of the arterial wall so that if arterial pressure suddenly rises, the walls of these vessels passively expand, which increases the firing frequency of action potentials generated by the receptors. If arterial blood pressure suddenly falls, decreased stretch of the arterial walls leads to a decrease in receptor firing.

Q: Which of the following shifts the Hb-O2 dissociation curve to the Right
1. Low H+
2. Hyperventilation
3. Decreased 2,3 DPG
4. Hyperthermia
[...]
A: Hyperthermia

Q: Which of the following is not a Ketone
1. Beta-Hydroxybutyrate
2. Acetoacetate
3. Alpha-ketoglutarate
4. Acetone
[...]
A: Alpha-ketoglutarate

Q: Which of the following is true about Sodium Nitroprusside toxicity?
1. It produces green discolouration of urine and hair
2. It results in high blood pressure and tachycardia
3. Vitamin B12 deficiency increases the risk of toxicity
4. Thiamine deficiency increases the risk of toxicity
[...]
A: C: Vitamin B12 deficiency increases the risk of toxicity
Extra: SNP + Hb -> NO + MetHb + 5x Cyanide
Toxicity from SNP is because of:
- Cyanide toxicity (mostly rate dependent) – lactic acidosis, cytotoxic shock
- Thiocyanate toxicity (depends on duration of infusion) – Nausea, fatigue, weakness, seizure, psychosis, hypothyroidism
Cyanide is removed from plasma by:
- Binding to MetHb -> Cyano-Met-Hb
- Binding to Vitamin B12 (Hydroxycobalamin) -> Cyanocobalamin
- Binding to Thiosulfate (catalysed by Hepatic Rhodanase) -> Thiocyanate
Thiocyanate and cyanocobalamin excreted in the urine.

Q: How much does the blood oxygen content increase when breathing FiO2 1.0 compared to room at (at sea level) in a healthy person?
1. 1-2%
2. 10-20%
3. 20-30%
4. 30-40%
[...]
A: 1-2%
Extra: - Blood Oxygen Content = CO_2
- CO2 = (SpO2 x Hb x 1.34) + (0.003 x PaO2)
- At FiO2 0.21 (RA):
- CO2 = (0.98 x 140 x 1.34) + (0.003 x 100) = 183.85 + 0.3 = 184.15mLO2/L blood
- At FiO2 1.0:
- CO2 = (1.0 x 140 x 1.34) + (0.003 x (760-47 – 1.25×40) = 187.6 + 1.99 = 189.59mLO2/L blood
- % change = (189.59-184.15)/184.15 = ~2%

Q: Which of the following is true about the spinal cord sensory pathways?
1. The dorsal column carries vibration, the anterior spinothalamic tract carries crude touch, and the lateral spinothalamic tract carries pain & temperature sensations
2. The dorsal column carries vibration, the anterior spinothalamic tract carries pain & temperature, and the lateral spinothalamic tract carries crude touch sensations
3. The dorsal column carries crude touch, the anterior spinothalamic tract carries vibration, and the lateral spinothalamic tract carries pain & temperature sensations
4. The dorsal column carries crude touch, the anterior spinothalamic tract carries pain & temperature, and the lateral spinothalamic tract carries vibration sensations
[...]
A: The dorsal column carries vibration, the anterior spinothalamic tract carries crude touch, and the lateral spinothalamic tract carries pain & temperature sensations

Q: Which drug has the shortest biological half-life?
1. Alfentanil
2. Methadone
3. Morphine
4. Remifentanil
[...]
A: Remifentanil

Q: Meropenem lowers the serum drug level of which of the following drugs?
1. Warfarin
2. Voriconazole
3. Sodium Valproate
4. Vancomycin
[...]
A: Sodium Valproate
Extra: Results: Thirty-nine patients were treated simultaneously with valproate and meropenem. The pharmacokinetic interaction was observed in all 39 patients, with an average drop in valproate plasma concentrations of 66%.
- Interaction between valproate and meropenem: a retrospective study
- Carbapenems and valproate: A consumptive relationship

Q: How many mmol of Mg2+ are in 10mL of 50% Magnesium Sulfate solution?
1. 2 mmol
2. 10 mmol
3. 20 mmol
4. 40 mmol
[...]
A: 20 mmol
Extra: - 50% Magnesium Sulfate is the standard solution in ICU
- MgSO4 comes as the heptahydrate (7 x H2O)
- Molar Mass = 246g/mol (24 + 32 + (4×16) + (7 x (16+2))
- 1mmol = 246mg
- 10mL of 50% Solution contains 5g of MgSO4
- 5000/246 = 20.3mmol in 10mL of solution

Q: The human voltage-gated sodium channel contains a pseudo-tetrameric alpha subunit with 4 domains. Which segment of each domain is primarily responsible for detecting changes in voltage?
1. Segment 2
2. Segment 3
3. Segment 4
4. Segment 6
[...]
A: Segment 4
Extra: Segment 4 is positively charged and is thought to move towards the extracellular surface as the cell becomes depolarised. This movement is transmitted to the pore forming domains by an intracellular linker.   Voltage-Gated Sodium Channels: Structure, Function, Pharmacology, and Clinical Indications

Q: In regard to Bilirubin:
1. It is transported to the small bowel for excretion bound to Albumin
2. It is metabolised to stercobilin by bacteria in the small bowel
3. It is more water soluble in its unconjugated from
4. It is formed from the breakdown of the globin portion of haemoglobin
[...]
A: It is metabolised to stercobilin by bacteria in the small bowel

Q: Which of the following organs receives the highest blood flow per 100g of mass at rest?
1. Brain
2. Heart
3. Kidneys
4. Liver
[...]
A: Kidneys

Q: Which of the following organs has the highest oxygen extraction ratio?
1. Brain
2. Heart
3. Kidneys
4. Liver
[...]
A: Heart

Q: Which subunit of G-proteins function as a GTP-ase?
1. Alpha
2. Beta
3. Gamma
4. Delta
[...]
A: Alpha
Extra: Handbook of the Behavioral Neurobiology of Serotonin:

Q: The Gibbs-Donnan Effect:
1. Causes an equalisation of the electrical potential on both sides of a semi-permeable membrane
2. Explains why Haemoglobin binds hydrogen ions in RBCs
3. Counteracts movement of fluid from the capillary into the extracellular space
4. Explains why anions bind to Albumin in the plasma
[...]
A: Counteracts movement of fluid from the capillary into the extracellular space
Extra: - The Gibbs-Donnan Effect is the predictable and unequal distribution of permeant charged ions on either side of a semipermeable membrane, in the presence of impermeant charged ions (e.g. proteins).
- The permeant ions distribute themselves so that at equilibrium, the ratios of their concentrations are equal:
- The total electrical potential remains unequal however due to presence of impermeant charged proteins.
- At the capillary endothelium, the Gibbs-Donnan effect contributes to the oncotic pressure. Charged plasma proteins (primarily Albumin) lead to the arrangement of permeant charged ions (Na and Cl) so that their concentration is higher in the plasma. This increases the osmotic pressure of plasma relative to the ECF and counteracts the hydrostatic pressure in the capillary

Q: Stenotrophomonas species are:
1. Gram positive cocci
2. Gram positive bacilli
3. Gram negative cocci
4. Gram negative bacilli
[...]
A: Gram negative bacilli
Extra: https://www.uptodate.com/contents/stenotrophomonas-maltophilia

Q: Aspergillus fumigatus is:
1. A yeast
2. A mold
3. A dimorphic fungus
4. A gram negative cocci
[...]
A: A mold
Extra: 2 broad clinical classifications for fungi:
- On the basis of growth form:
  - Yeasts – ovoid or spherical single cells that multiply by budding (e.g. Cryptococcus)
  - Filamentous (moulds) – multi-nucleate, branching hyphae -> forms a mycelium (e.g. Aspergillus, Trichophyton)
  - Dimorphic – form hyphae at environmental temperatures and yeast cells within the body (e.g. Histoplasma)
    - Candida is dimorphic in the other direction – unusual (from yeasts in the environment and hyphae in the body)
- By the type of infection:
  - Superficial mycoses (superficial skin, hair, mouth, vagina)
    - Candida albicans (Vaginal candidiasis)
  - Subcutaneous mycoses (nails, deeper skin)
    - Mycetoma spp.
    - Sporothricosis
  - Deep mycoses
    - Aspergillus
    - Candida
    - Coccidioides
    - Cryptococcus
    - Histoplasma

Q: Relative humidity:
1. Is the mass of water vapour present in a given volume of air
2. Remains constant if the temperature of the air changes
3. Increases as the temperature of the air increases
4. Increases as the temperature of the air decreases
[...]
A: Increases as the temperature of the air decreases
Extra: - Absolute humidity is the mass of water vapour present in a given mass/volume of air (g/kg)
- Relative humidity is the ratio of the mass of water vapour in a given volume of air to the mass required to saturate that given volume of air at the same temperature.
- i.e. Current absolute humidity/absolute humidity if saturated at the current temperature
      Effect of temperature
- Warmer air is able to hold more water vapour – i.e. is able to have a higher absolute humidity
- Colder air holds less water vapour – i.e. able to have a lower absolute humiditiy
  When the temperature of the air decreases:
- Saturated absolute humidity drops, current absolute humidity remains the same
- Therefore – the ratio of current absolute humidity : saturated absolute humidity increases
- I.e. Relative Humidity Increases

Q: Which muscle of the larynx abducts the vocal cords?
1. Posterior cricoarytenoid
2. Lateral cricoarytenoid
3. Thyroarytenoid
4. Cricothyroid
[...]
A: Posterior cricoarytenoid
Extra: https://teachmeanatomy.info/neck/viscera/larynx/muscles/
- The posterior cricoarytenoids are the ONLY muscles to abduct the vocal folds

Q: In smooth muscle contraction, what does Ca2+ bind to?
1. Troponin C
2. Calmodulin
3. Calbindin
4. Myosin
[...]
A: Calmodulin
Extra: https://www.cvphysiology.com/Blood Pressure/BP026

Q: Which pattern of nerve stimulation is most useful in monitoring very deep neuromuscular blockade?
1. Train-of-Four Ratio
2. Train-of-Four Count
3. Post-tetanic Count
4. Double Burst Stimulation
[...]
A: Post-tetanic Count
Extra: https://academic.oup.com/bjaed/article/6/1/7/347026
- During profound non-depolarizing neuromuscular block, there may be no response to TOF or single twitch stimulation. In such circumstances, a post-tetanic count (PTC) may be useful.
- Occurs due to post-tetanic facilitation (ACh mobilisation and increased synthesis)
- Effects can last up to 6 min – should not be repeated in this period

Q: Where do nerve impulses arise from to cause pupillary dilatation?
1. Ciliary Ganglion
2. Edinger-Westphal Nucleus
3. Superior Cervical Ganglion
4. Occipital Cortex
[...]
A: Superior Cervical Ganglion
Extra: https://www.journalofcognition.org/articles/10.5334/joc.18/

Q: What is the plasma protein binding of Propofol?
1. <5%
2. 35-45%
3. 75-85%
4. >95%
[...]
A: >95%
Extra: https://go.drugbank.com/drugs/DB00818

Q: The thermoneutral zone is:
1. The range of core temperatures that do not trigger a physiological response to alter the temperature of the body
2. The range of ambient temperatures which do not trigger a change in thermal behaviour
3. 25 – 30°C
4. 36.0 – 37.5°C
[...]
A: 25 – 30°C
Extra: 1. The range of core temperatures that do not trigger a physiological response to alter the temperature of the body (Inter-threshold Temperature)
2. The range of ambient temperatures which do not trigger a change in thermal behaviour (Thermal Comfort Zone)
3. 25 – 30°C (Usual Thermoneutral Zone)
4. 36.0 – 37.5°C (Normal Core Body Temperature)
- TNZ: The range of ambient temperatures where the body can maintain its core temperature solely through regulating dry heat loss, i.e. Skin blood flow (conduction and radiation).
  - Range (unclothed): 25-30°C
  - Range(clothed): 20-22°C
  - Neonates: 32-34°C (unclothed), 24-30°C (clothed)
- Within the TNZ, the rate of heat loss is equal to the basal metabolic rate

Q: A fluid with a large strong ion difference will cause a:
1. Hyperchloraemia
2. Metabolic Alkalosis
3. Metabolic Acidosis
4. Low CO2
[...]
A: Metabolic Alkalosis

Q: Which of these is true for Rocuronium:
1. Less potent than Vecuronium
2. 90% plasma protein binding
3. Half-life of 10 minutes
4. Eliminated primarily in urine
[...]
A: Less potent than Vecuronium
Extra: 1. Less potent than Vecuronium
  - Increased potency -> lower dose used
  - ED95 Rocuronium = 0.3mg/kg
  - ED95 Vecuronium = 0.5mg/kg (more potent)
2. 90% plasma protein binding (10% bound to plasma proteins)
3. Half-life of 10 minutes (Half life of ~80 mins)
4. Eliminated primarily in urine (Excreted in bile (60%) and unrine (40%) )

Q: What percentage of total body Magnesium is in the intracellular fluid?
1. 60%
2. 40%
3. 15%
4. 5%
[...]
A: 40%

Q: What is the mechanism of action of docusate as an aperient?
1. Stimulant
2. Bulk-forming
3. Osmotic effect
4. Stool softener
[...]
A: Stool softener

Q: The plasma protein binding of Vecuronium is:
1. 30%
2. Unknown
3. 60-90%
4. 15-30%
[...]
A: 60-90%
Extra: https://oxfordmedicine.com/view/10.1093/med/9780198768814.001.0001/med-9780198768814-chapter-15
1. 30% (Rocuronium)
2. Unknown
3. 60-90% (Vecuronium)
4. 15-30% (Pancuronium)