Title: Jamjar MCQ's / 2024

Q: Which drug has the longest elimination half-life?
A: Digoxin
B: Glycopyrrolate
C: Milrinone
D: Vasopressin
[...]
A: A: Digoxin

Q: What is the PaO2 in the coronary sinus?
A: 20mmHg
B: 40mmHg
C: 60mmHg
D: 80mmHg
[...]
A: A: 20mmHg

Q: Propranolol is a competitive antagonist at adrenoreceptors.  What effect would you expect to see on a dose-response curve?
A: left shift
B: right shift
C: downward shift
D: upward shift
[...]
A: B: right shift

Q: Which of the following has the lowest pressure?
A: Pleural Pressure
B: Mean Systemic Filling Pressure
C: Right Atrial Pressure
D: Right Ventricular Pressure
[...]
A: A: Pleural Pressure

Q: The Dorsal Respiratory group of chemoreceptors are located near the
A: Facial and Glossopharyngeal nerves
B: Vagus and Glossopharyngeal nerves
C: Vagus and Accessory nerves
D: Vagus and vestibular nerves
[...]
A: B: Vagus and Glossopharyngeal nerves

Q: At the apex of the lung, compared with the base
A: Pleural pressure increases
B: PO2 increases
C: Compliance increases
D: Airway resistance increases
[...]
A: B: PO2 increases

Q: Digoxin’s direct mechanical mechanism of action is via:
A: Inhibition of Na/K/ATPase to increase intracellular Ca++
B: Inhibition of Na/K/ATPase to increase automaticity
C: Inhibition of Na/K/ATPase to depolarise smooth muscle
D: Sensitization of carotid sinus baroreceptors
[...]
A: A: Inhibition of Na/K/ATPase to increase intracellular Ca++

Q: The largest amplitude on an oscillometer correlates closely to
A: Pulse point
B: Systolic Blood Pressure
C: Diastolic Blood Pressure
D: Mean Arterial Pressure
[...]
A: D: Mean Arterial Pressure

Q: One gram of adult haemoglobin can carry how many ml of O2
A: 1.39
B: 1.37
C: 1.36
D: 1.34
[...]
A: D: 1.34

Q: During period of starvation
A: glycogen stores are depleted in 48hrs
B: amino acids are converted to glucose
C: tissue breakdown initially provides 900 calories per day
D: urinary nitrogen loss progressively increases
[...]
A: B: amino acids are converted to glucose

Q: The water content in a gas sample measured from the expiratory limb of a ventilator for a patient in ICU is 22mg/L. Which statement is correct?
A: The absolute humidity is 22mg/L
B: The absolute humidity cannot be calculated
C: The relative humidity is 22%
D: The relative humidity cannot be calculated
[...]
A: A: The absolute humidity is 22mg/L

Q: Gabapentin exerts its pharmacological effect on
A: Calcium channels
B: Sodium channels
C: GABA_A receptors
D: Alpha_2 adrenergic receptors
[...]
A: A: Calcium channels

Q: Ischaemic cardiac pain is transmitted by:
A: A-delta nerve fibres
B: Sympathetic nerve fibres
C: Nerve fibres that synapse in the dorsal root ganglion
D: Special visceral afferent fibres
[...]
A: B: Sympathetic nerve fibres

Q: Hydralazine is best described as a:
A: K+ antagonist
B: Na^+ antagonist
C: Direct Vasodilator
D: Venodilator and vasodilator
[...]
A: C: Direct Vasodilator

Q: Which cephalosporin has the highest proportion of biliary excretion:
A: Cephazolin
B: Ceftriaxone
C: Ceftazidime
D: Cefotaxime
[...]
A: B: Ceftriaxone

Q: What is the maximum capacity for water absorption in the large bowel per day?
A: 2-3L
B: 5-6L
C: 8-9L
D: 10-11L
[...]
A: B: 5-6L

Q: COX-2 inhibitors may mediate bleeding via inhibition of which of the following?
A: Prostaglandins
B: Platelet production
C: GPIIB-IIIA receptors
D: Thromboxane A2
[...]
A: D: Thromboxane A2

Q: In addition to being a non-selective beta-blocker, Propranolol is also:
A: An alpha-1 antagonist
B: A sodium channel blocker
C: A Beta-2 agonist
D: A potassium channel blocker
[...]
A: B: A sodium channel blocker

Q: Which process is required to convert Noradrenaline to Adrenaline?
A: Hydroxylation
B: Reduction
C: Decarboxylation
D: Methylation
[...]
A: D: Methylation

Q: Which immunoglobulin is able to cross the placenta?
A: IgA
B: IgE
C: IgG
D: IgM
[...]
A: C: IgG

Q: The addition of sodium bicarbonate to local anaesthetics
A: Increases its protein binding
B: Decreases its efficacy
C: Inactivates the local anaesthetic
D: Increases the speed of onset
[...]
A: D: Increases the speed of onset

Q: Blood in the fetal aorta after the ductus arteriosus has SpO2 of
A: 30%
B: 60%
C: 75%
D: 90%
[...]
A: B: 60%

Q: Propofol contains the following excipient to prevent bacterial growth:
A: Disodium edetate (ETDA)
B: Glycerol
C: Egg phospholipid
D: Sodium Hydroxide
[...]
A: A: Disodium edetate (ETDA)

Q: Performing a midline lumbar puncture, the needle would pass through:
A: the pia mater before obtaining CSF
B: the epidural space before the ligamentum flavum
C: the supraspinous ligament before the interspinous ligament
D: The subarachnoid space before the dura mater
[...]
A: C: the supraspinous ligament before the interspinous ligament

Q: Besides glutamate, the agonist of the NMDA receptor is
A: Glycine
B: Magnesium
C: Calcium
D: Zinc
[...]
A: B: Magnesium

Q: Which FFP should not be given to A+
A: A+
B: AB+
C: A-
D: AB-
[...]
A: B: AB+

Q: What is the mechanism of action of ipratropium
A: Beta agonist
B: Muscarinic agonist
C: Beta antagonist
D: Muscarinic antagonist
[...]
A: D: Muscarinic antagonist

Q: With regards to the QT interval on the ECG
A: is best monitored in aVF
B: hyperkalaemia prolongs QT
C: hypocalcaemia prolongs QT
D: tachycardia prolongs QT
[...]
A: C: hypocalcaemia prolongs QT

Q: Complement is required for
A: Anaphylaxis
B: clearance of both endotoxins and bacteraemia
C: normal c reactive protein release
D: normal activation of the coagulation cascade
[...]
A: B: clearance of both endotoxins and bacteraemia

Q: In smooth muscles
A: spontaneous pacemaker potentials are generated
B: contraction is triggered by the binding of calcium to troponin C
C: calcium influx from extracellular fluid initiates contraction
D: there is a variable length-to-tension relationship
[...]
A: D: there is a variable length-to-tension relationship

Q: Which is the lowest pressure?
A: 0.01 atm
B: 5 kPa
C: 10mmHg
D: 15cmH2O
[...]
A: A: 0.01 atm

Q: Normal alveolar air is best represented by which set of values?
A:  a temperature of 22^oC, absolute humidity of 10 mg/L and relative humidity of 50%.
B: a temperature of 37^oC, absolute humidity of 22 mg/L and relative humidity of 50%.
C: a temperature of 37^oC, absolute humidity of 44 mg/L and relative humidity of 100%.
D: a temperature of 33^oC, absolute humidity of 37 mg/L and relative humidity of 100%.
[...]
A: C: a temperature of 37^oC, absolute humidity of 44 mg/L and relative humidity of 100%.

Q: Which step demonstrates the greatest drop in pO2 in the oxygen cascade in health?
A: from trachea to alveolus
B: from environment to larynx
C: from alveolus to mitochondria
D: from alveolus to capillary blood
[...]
A: C: from alveolus to mitochondria

Q: In which tissue will the thiopentone concentration be greatest one hour after intravenous bolus administration?
A: Liver
B: Fat
C: Muscle
D: Plasma
[...]
A: A: Liver

Q: The binding of adenosine to the P1 receptor leads to the activation of which class of ion channel?
A: T-type Ca^2+ channels
B: Na^+ channels
C: L-Type Ca^2+ channels
D: K^+_ACh channels
[...]
A: D: K^+_ACh channels

Q: Which structure is the most medial in the femoral triangle?
A: The femoral vein
B: The femoral nerve
C: The deep inguinal lymphatics
D: The femoral artery
[...]
A: C: The deep inguinal lymphatics

Q: Which of the following statements regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus in a healthy term infant is FALSE?
A: Indomethacin or ibuprofen can prolong the time to closure of the ductus arteriosus
B: The ductus arteriosus anatomically closes within 21 days of birth
C: The ductus arteriosus functionally closes within 72 hours of birth
D: The ductus arteriosus may close within the first 24h of life
[...]
A: A: Indomethacin or ibuprofen can prolong the time to closure of the ductus arteriosus

Q: Which subunit of g-protein acts as a GTPase?
A: the Gα subunit
B: the Gβ subunit
C: the Gγ subunit
D: the Gδ subunit
[...]
A: A: the Gα subunit

Q: Activation of μ-opioid receptors with morphine leads to which series of events?
A: Activated GPCR binds trimeric G-protein → interaction of G protein with receptor forms Gα-GTP + Gβγ → Gα-GTP interacts with the GIRK potassium channels → membrane depolarisation + Gβγ binds and activates adenylyl cyclase → intracellular cAMP increases → PKA activity increases → increased cellular excitability
B: Activated GPCR binds trimeric G-protein → interaction of G protein with receptor forms Gα-GTP + Gβγ → Gα-GTP binds and activates adenylyl cyclase → intracellular cAMP increases → PKA activity increases + Gβγ → interacts with the GIRK potassium channels → membrane depolarisation → increased cellular excitability
C: Activated GPCR binds trimeric G-protein → interaction of G protein with receptor forms Gα-GTP + Gβγ → Gα-GTP interacts with the GIRK potassium channels → membrane hyperpolarisation + Gβγ binds and inactivates adenylyl cyclase → intracellular cAMP falls → PKA activity decreases → reduced cellular excitability
D: Activated GPCR binds trimeric G-protein → interaction of G protein with receptor forms Gα-GTP + Gβγ → Gα-GTP binds and inactivates adenylyl cyclase → intracellular cAMP falls → PKA activity decreases + Gβγ interacts with the GIRK potassium channels → membrane hyperpolarisation → reduced cellular excitability
[...]
A: D: Activated GPCR binds trimeric G-protein → interaction of G protein with receptor forms Gα-GTP + Gβγ → Gα-GTP binds and inactivates adenylyl cyclase → intracellular cAMP falls → PKA activity decreases + Gβγ interacts with the GIRK potassium channels → membrane hyperpolarisation → reduced cellular excitability